Every event must have a cause?
Can anyone out there help me with this?
I responded to another blog which made the assertion ‘Every event must have a cause…’. You can follow the conversation here: http://christianscribbler.wordpress.com/2008/11/01/apologetics-the-cosmological-argument-for-god/. Unfortunately the conversation closed down.
The writer claimed that the proposition ‘every event has a cause’ is analytically true, and that’s what I cannot understand. I can understand the different claim that ‘every effect has a cause’ is analytically true, and I would probably agree. I also understand (just about) Kant’s claim that ‘every event has a cause’ is a synthetic a priori, and as such a precondition for objective knowledge. But I cannot understand what grounds someone might have for claiming it is analytically true.
I am not saying the claim is nonsense, just that I cannot understand it. Can anyone shed light on it?
© Chris Lawrence 2008